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Was it bigamy, or was it legal?
Profile | Posted by | Options | Post Date |
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Valerie | Report | 6 Mar 2019 00:12 |
Hi Julie - |
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Julie | Report | 5 Mar 2019 22:11 |
Many thanks for tracking this down ArgyllGran, I think answers my question as far as it's possible to do so. I wouldn't have ever thought of looking at the Offences Against the Persons Act 1861 to find it. Thankfully someone else did. Of course we will never know whether the abandoned spouse in this case had any contact with the errant first husband after he went to the US. |
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ArgyllGran | Report | 5 Mar 2019 21:37 |
"The offence of bigamy has a statutory exception which applies where the spouse has been absent 7 years and they are not known to have been alive in that time: |
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Researching: |
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ArgyllGran | Report | 5 Mar 2019 21:33 |
Don't know if this still applied in the 1890's - |
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Researching: |
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Kay???? | Report | 5 Mar 2019 21:25 |
I belive in such cases,a sworn affidavit applied where all contact had been lost and no contact had been made during the past????? years of the deserted spouse plus there was no knowledge of whereabouts dead or alive...…if proven the person would then be given a grant to re-marry. |
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ArgyllGran | Report | 5 Mar 2019 21:23 |
I can't give you a yes or no answer, Julie. I would guess strictly speaking it was bigamous - but wasn't uncommon. Divorce was expensive, and declaring someone dead would have cost money too. |
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Researching: |
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rootgatherer | Report | 5 Mar 2019 21:13 |
I would think that if there was no divorce or legal action to have the husband declared dead, then the marriage would be bigamous. That's just my opinion though. Perhaps divorce was easier to obtain in the USA at that time and her husband obtained a divorce there leaving her free to marry again. |
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Julie | Report | 5 Mar 2019 20:36 |
I have found references to the fact that where a spouse disappeared, it was accepted that after 7 years the abandoned partner could marry again. I was already aware of the possibility of having someone declared dead after 7 years, but the inference seems to be that a formal declaration of death was not needed to allow another marriage. I haven't been able to confirm is whether this would have been the case in the 1890's. I have an ancestor whose husband went to the US leaving his wife behind. He married someone else in the US, and in 1898 his abandoned wife married again, this was more than 7 years after first husband left England. So was her marriage bigamous or legal? |